[fpc-pascal] private type and type compatibility
Martin
lazarus at mfriebe.de
Thu Oct 31 16:14:13 CET 2013
On 31/10/2013 14:41, Frederic Da Vitoria wrote:
>
> ...and this modification would only become relevant for new code, so
> quite probably not worth the compiler extra code. Yes, I can
> understand this too. But my question was not about changing the
> behavior of fpc (not any more). This was a theoretical question. In
> other words, if you had been in a position to create TP back in
> nineteen something, and if one of your main concerns had been about
> respecting the Pascal philosophy, how would you have handled this? The
> way it has been done? Or do you agree this was not quite orthodox
> (although efficient)?
>
Well, that depends on how you see a type.
If a type is something that I can use to declare a variable, then the
"type-information" (for lack of another term) that is part of a typed
variable is not a "type". Because I can not use it to declare a variable..
So if you differ between type, and type-information then there is no
conflict.
A typed variable has type info (never mind RTTI, it may just be avail at
compile time). this type info can be accessed through the variable.
---
Also where is the problem with it?
By making a variable or function's result) public, you declare, that it
should be usable. So you should expect all indirect requirements to be
made available too.
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